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by devon on 04 May 2006 - 15:05
Can anyone tell me how a breeder can sell puppies and claim they were bred by themselves when they dont own either the sire or dam?
by VomFelsenHof on 04 May 2006 - 15:05
Leasing them is one way. The other would be knowing the owner(s) of both the sire and the dam, and then being there for the actual breeding.
by vomlandholz on 04 May 2006 - 15:05
Please use generalities in the discussion, no specific names.
Thank you.
by devon on 04 May 2006 - 20:05
Thats as maybe but how does he end up with all the pups? There was no mention of "leasing" the bitch only that they bred them therefore being new to the show scene one would assume that he owned the bitch.To my reckoning this person is a conman and for not disclosing all relevent information should be sanctioned.Would like to hear others comments on this.
by neuen-polizei on 04 May 2006 - 21:05
It's possible that he sold the female with the agreement that he gets the first litter with the stud of his choice. Some people do this so that the new owner will be able to pay less money for the dog, and the seller still gets the full price he was asking.
Jeff
by animules on 05 May 2006 - 00:05
It is also possible somebody bought the whole litter when born. It all depends on how it is worded and how questions asked of them are answered. I could understand saying "our puppies" if the whole litter was born, it's the truth then.
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