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by BabyEagle4U on 30 June 2012 - 16:06
Keith show me where in the Constitution the SCOTUS is granted the powers of Judicial Review or the power to "tax" people.
Give me a straw would ya instead of just wavin' them around, I'll take the shortest, please. LOL

by Keith Grossman on 30 June 2012 - 16:06
And you, madam, are a very bitter and insulting old woman who clearly doesn't come from a background in which manners or civility are considered important. I hope you're good with that "equalizer" if you ever have to use it.

by Keith Grossman on 30 June 2012 - 16:06
Neither the president nor the SCOTUS passed the law, BabyEagle; Congress did and as you have so adeptly pointed out, they have the power to impose a tax.
by joanro on 30 June 2012 - 16:06

by Keith Grossman on 30 June 2012 - 16:06

by BabyEagle4U on 30 June 2012 - 16:06
-- Why are you twisting. Only the House of Reps has the power to "tax" people - then that "tax" bill goes into Congress to be passed, the Bill that passed Congress isn't a "tax". It was written and passed threw the house and floor with the commerce clause. The Bill the SCOTUS "reviewed" wasn't a "tax" - the SCOTUS deamed it a "tax".
The SCOTUS NOW say the whole Bill is a "tax" - that would mean it needs to be rewritten and introduced in the House of Reps as a "tax" - if it passes there then goes to Congress to be voted on as a "tax" and passes - only then can it legally become law (according to the US Constitution).
Right ?

by Keith Grossman on 30 June 2012 - 16:06


by BabyEagle4U on 30 June 2012 - 16:06
Ok, I'll take this to another forum, I'm clearly on to something here. I feel confident now. LOL
Have a good one.
by 4 mals2sheps on 30 June 2012 - 17:06
by joanro on 30 June 2012 - 17:06
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